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Follow up to a question I asked a while back:
Say frinstance a client goes to see the doc and then there is a copay. Client has Plan F or whatever.
My understanding from earlier discussion is that the doc's office sends the bill to medicare and then medicare pays and then sends a bill to the med supp carrier for the copay or deductible. Is this correct?
Does medicare then pay the doc for the entire fee or does the carrier send a payment over to the doc for their share?
From the clients view, are there any instances where the client would be talking directly with the carrier about payment on a bill where medicare has approved payment (assuming client has kept up with premiums)?
How does all that work?
Thank you.
Winter
Say frinstance a client goes to see the doc and then there is a copay. Client has Plan F or whatever.
My understanding from earlier discussion is that the doc's office sends the bill to medicare and then medicare pays and then sends a bill to the med supp carrier for the copay or deductible. Is this correct?
Does medicare then pay the doc for the entire fee or does the carrier send a payment over to the doc for their share?
From the clients view, are there any instances where the client would be talking directly with the carrier about payment on a bill where medicare has approved payment (assuming client has kept up with premiums)?
How does all that work?
Thank you.
Winter